AKT and KFP information for candidates

Page last updated 21 January 2025

Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) and Key Feature Problem (KFP) Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

 

Update to Key Feature Problem exam format

 

The Key Feature Problem (KFP) exam format has been updated to remove handwritten responses.

The exam consists of 70 individual scenarios, each with a multiple selection question (MSQ) that is answered on a paper bubble sheet. This format will be familiar to all candidates as it is similar to that used in the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT). Handwritten responses will no longer be required.

For further details, expand the FAQ sections below.

Both the AKT and KFP will be delivered on paper. You will complete a multiple-choice answer sheet for both exams by shading the corresponding bubbles on computer-readable answer sheets. We’ll provide you with pens. You’re not permitted to use pencils or provide your own pens as these may not be visible to the scanning software.

There’s no negative marking for incorrect answers, therefore it's in your best interest to select the requested number of responses for each question.

Due to the difference in the number of responses requested per question, KFP questions contain variable marks that contribute equally to the final mark. Making each question worth 1.43% or 1/70 of your overall score.

However, it's important you read how many answers are requested. If you shade more options on the bubble sheet than you were asked for, each response will be marked, but a 0.35% penalty will be deducted from the overall mark of your paper, per additional bubble shaded.

Further information on marking and examples of questions and scoring can be found in the AKT and KFP Guide.

Paul Holt, aged 62 years, has noticed mild pain gradually increasing in his left scrotum over the last three weeks. He has increased pain when sitting. He has not had any penile discharge but has noticed mild stinging at the end of urination. He is a widower and has not been sexually active for six months. He has never had sex with men.

On examination, his temperature is 37.6oC, heart rate 83/min regular, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 135/90 mmHg, oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Examination of the scrotum reveals normal position of the testes with tenderness at the superior pole of the left testis and a normal cremasteric reflex.  

What are the MOST appropriate next steps? Select four (4) from the following list. 

  1. Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
  2. Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 14 days
  3. First void urine for chlamydia and gonorrhoea PCR
  4. Ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily
  5. Indometacin 100mg rectally as a single dose
  6. Manually externally rotate the left testis
  7. Paracetamol 1g four times daily
  8. Prostate specific antigen
  9. Reassure that symptoms are likely to settle without treatment
  10. Refer to urologist for scrotal exploration
  11. Refer urgently to the Emergency Department
  12. Tapentadol controlled-release 50mg twice daily
  13. Trimethoprim 300 mg daily for 14 days
  14. Urethral swab for herpes simplex virus PCR
  15. Urethral swab microscopy, culture and sensitivity
  16. Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity

C. First void urine for chlamydia and gonorrhoea PCR (Score: 1)

D. Ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily (Score: 1)

G. Paracetamol 1g four times daily (Score: 1)

P. Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity (Score: 1)

This is a four answer multiple selection question with a mixture of investigations and management options. The patient is presenting with sub-acute slowly worsening scrotal pain, mild dysuria without discharge, a low grade temperature, and unilateral localised testicular tenderness. The most likely diagnosis is epididymo-orchitis. The subacute presentation and patient age makes an acute testicular torsion unlikely. Whilst a sexually transmitted infection is a less likely cause, it cannot be excluded from the history. His pain is not severe.

Therefore, correct answers relate to rational initial investigation to determine the causative organism and provision of simple analgesia. Antibiotics can be initiated once the causative organism is known. There is no imminent emergency to warrant urgent referral.

Clare Parker, aged 4 years, presents for her routine scheduled immunisations with her mother Heather. Clare has had a persistent cough for ten days. She also had a runny nose and fever when the cough started, however these symptoms have now settled. Clare has vomited several times after episodes of coughing but is eating and drinking normally.

Clare has no significant past medical history and last had her routine childhood immunisations at age 18 months. She attends daycare two days a week.

On examination, Clare looks well. Her temperature is 36.9oC, heart rate 90/min regular, respiratory rate 20/min and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Auscultation of her chest is unremarkable. You note frequent spasms of coughing.

You arrange appropriate investigation of Clare’s cough which confirms the most likely diagnosis.

What is the MOST appropriate management for Clare? Select three (3) from the following list.

  1. Advise Clare can return to daycare after 5 days of treatment
  2. Advise Clare can return to daycare tomorrow
  3. Advise Clare must not return to daycare until her symptoms are resolved
  4. Advise Clare should delay her routine immunisations for two weeks
  5. Advise Clare’s mother should contact the relevant public health unit
  6. Advise to avoid lactose for four weeks
  7. Advise to proceed with routine immunisations
  8. Amoxicillin-clavulanate 22.5mg/3.2mg/kg/dose 12 hourly for 14 days
  9. Clarithromycin liquid 7.5mg/kg/dose 12 hourly for 7 days
  10. Oral rehydration solution 10mL/kg/hour
  11. Prednisolone 1mg/kg/dose once daily for 5 days
  12. Salbutamol 100mcg/dose 6 puffs via spacer and mask 4 hourly as required

A. Advise Clare can return to daycare after 5 days of treatment (Score: 1)

G. Advise to proceed with routine immunisations (Score: 1)

I. Clarithromycin liquid 7.5mg/kg/dose 12 hourly for 7 days (Score: 1)

This is a three answer multiple selection question with a mixture of pharmacological and non-pharmacological management options. Candidates need to first identify that the most likely diagnosis is whooping cough (pertussis). As the cough has been present for less than 14 days, appropriate antibiotic treatment is indicated to reduce the risk of transmission to others. Exclusion from daycare is required until 5 days of therapy has been received, or if coughing has been ongoing for more than 21 days. Children should still complete the pertussis immunisation schedule if they contract whooping cough.

The child in this case is still eating and drinking normally, therefore oral rehydration is not required. As pertussis is a notifiable disease it is the GP’s responsibility to notify the Public Health unit. Other distractors relate to incorrect diagnoses (such as asthma, gastroenteritis or protracted bacterial bronchitis).

Exam preparation materials are being updated, with more to be released ahead of the 2025.2 exams.

  • Exam Support Online (ESO) modules and Self-Assessment Progress Testing (SAPT) are available on gplearning using your RACGP member login details, and you can access them multiple times. Once logged in to gplearning, you can either:  
  • go to the LMS Dashboard, scroll down to the Content Quick Search and click on Exams, or  
  • go to the Browse tool in the main navigation bar and search for Exams

The ESO modules explain the AKT and KFP exams and walk you through examples. They advise how to approach and answer the exam questions, how to avoid common pitfalls and how to optimise your answers. Note: if you have previously undertaken this course, it will still appear as “completed”, however the modules have been updated.

No. There will be no change to your candidacy or existing exam results.

You will receive a note paper booklet in your exam kit.

You may underline, circle or flag key information and may make notes in the question booklet if you wish to do so. However, other than shading in the selected bubbles, it is critical that you do not make any notes or other marks in the answer booklet (bubble sheet).

Friday 4 April

2025.2 AKT and KFP enrolments open

Thursday 1 May

AKT and KFP enrolments close / Deadline for AKT and KFP special arrangements applications

TBC

AKT and KFP National Assessment Advisor open letter emailed to candidates

TBC

AKT and KFP practice exam, answers and rationale emailed to candidates

TBC

Venue confirmed and important exam details provided

Thursday 5 June

Deadline for AKT withdrawals to receive a fee refund

Friday 6 June

Deadline for KFP withdrawals to receive a fee refund

TBC

Exam day reminder emailed to candidates

Friday 4 July

2025.2 AKT exam day

Saturday 5 July

2025.2 KFP exam day

Friday 22 August

2025.2 AKT and KFP results release

You can access your exam results and assessment statement by logging in to the RACGP website on the date the results are published. AKT and KFP pass marks will not be published on the RACGP website or provided to candidates. You’ll receive your results as a Pass or Fail mark, along with the score band (ranging from F4 – P4). P1 is the first band above the pass mark, and P4 is the highest band. F1 is first band below the pass mark, and F4 is the lowest band. Individual scores are not provided. This is in line with recent changes to how results are provided for the CCE.

The AKT and KFP are auto-marked. The pass mark for each AKT and KFP is determined by actively practicing Fellows who set the standard for each exam, using an internationally recognised standard setting methodology. For more information about marking and standard setting, refer to the AKT and KFP guide.

Bubble answer sheets are scanned, and your answers will be digitally recognised. Where the computer cannot confidently identify your answer, human intervention is used to recognise your intent – this is most common when you’ve had to cross out an answer.

Both the AKT and KFP will be held at 11am (local time) in each venue. There are not multiple sessions.

Both exams have a duration of four hours.

A full list of exam locations is available here. You will be asked to list your preferred location when enrolling.

All enrolled candidates will receive an exam venue confirmation email approximately six weeks prior to the exam. You are advised to wait until your venue has been confirmed before making travel arrangements.

If you have not received your venue confirmation after this week, please contact examinations@racgp.org.au.

Candidates are permitted to bring the following items into the exam room without an approved special arrangement:

      Medicine and medical devices

  • Medication – if in original pack
    • EpiPens
    • inhaler
    • simple analgesia
    • prescription medications where doses are required during the exam time
    • insulin
  • Diabetes / blood glucose monitoring devices or insulin pumps. You can bring your blood glucose monitor as well as your insulin to help maintain your blood sugar levels. If your phone is required, it must be on flight mode with all sounds disabled and must be placed on your desk in view of the invigilators.
  • Eye drops
  • Ear drops
  • Nasal spray
  • Hearing aids

      Food and water

  • A small amount of food such as a muesli bar or lollies. Please note the food must be of a type that creates minimal disruption to other candidates and minimal noise when consumed (no plastic wrappers). Hot food or food with nuts or strong odour is not permitted. Food should be in a clear zip lock bag.
  • Water in up to two (2) clear, colourless plastic bottles – the bottles can’t have any writing on them, labels must be removed, and you should place these bottles on the floor or beside your chair only (not on your desk) during the exam

      Comfort aids

  • Prescription / reading glasses (can be in case with cleaning cloth)
  • Lip balm
  • Feminine hygiene products – in plain, unlabelled packaging and placed in a clear zip lock bag
  • Tissues – a small pack in their original packaging
  • Hand towel
  • Ear plugs – non-electronic earplugs (rubber, foam, plastic etc). If you choose to use earplugs, it’s your responsibility to ensure you can hear any announcements the invigilator makes.
  • Face mask
  • Pen grip
  • Cushion
  • Clear ruler
  • Small tube of hand cream

All items must be reviewed at registration and may not be allowed in the exam if they don’t meet the requirements. Ear plugs and tissues will be provided at all venues.

Candidates are not permitted to bring the following items into the exam room:

  • Pens, pencils, or other writing devices or stationery of any kind (pens will be provided in all examinations)
  • Paper including blank notepaper, notes, books or notebooks
  • Mobile phones
  • Watches of any type
  • Timing or recording devices, calculators, computers, iPads, iPods, tablets, organisers or electronic devices of any type
  • Electronic or active earplugs or headphones or ear muffs
  • Non-religious headwear, hats or hooded jackets/jumpers/tops
  • Any bags or other personal belongings. Your invigilator will advise where to place your belongings. This may be in a dedicated space or within the exam room where they are not to be accessed.

Check that you don’t have any of these items on you before you start your examYou may be asked to pat yourself down (eg along the arms, legs and waistline) to show that you are not concealing banned items.

You may also be asked to turn out your pockets so exam staff can verify that they are empty.

You need to bring photo identification (ID) to your exam. This must be a current (not expired), original document. Digital IDs (IDs on a mobile phone app), scans or copies are not accepted. Accepted forms of ID are:

  • passport
  • Australian driver’s licence
  • proof-of-age or identity card issued by an Australian state or territory
  • Australian student identity card
  • any other Australian entitlement or identity card issued by the Australian Federal Government or a state/territory government that includes a photograph.

The name on your ID must match your name in our records. If your ID doesn’t match our records, contact examinations@racgp.org.au at least 48 hours before your scheduled exam time. Middle names are not considered, only first and last names. If we can’t confirm your identity before your exam, you may not be permitted to sit.

No. You must use the black ball-point pen you are provided with on exam day to ensure your paper can be scanned by our exam vendor.

Inks from fountain pens, markers, and other types of pens are prone to smudge, bleed, or run, which could make your answers harder to read, or may not be compatible with the scanning process. We will have ample spare pens at each venue in case your pen stops working. However, you are welcome to bring your own pen grip. See “What can I bring into the exam room” for full list of permissible items.

If you make a mistake in a multiple-choice question, place a cross through the circle you want to remove and shade a new choice. To re-select a crossed-out answer, circle your choice and make sure to cross out any unwanted choices. If there is any doubt, a human examiner will review your answer.

If you need to change a response to a written question, cross it out and re-write it nearby. Ensure it is obvious which question your answer applies to.

Every venue will have a small number of spare papers available if a candidate’s original paper is damaged during the exam.

All candidates enrolled in the AKT or KFP will receive a PDF copy of the paper-based practice exam. The practice exam format is the same as the real exam format. The exam booklets on exam day are printed and bound, not loose-leaf.

The RACGP has well-established procedures for handling incidents in exam venues. If there is an interruption, please follow the instructions provided by staff at the venue.

Make sure you record the correct enrolment and exam dates in your calendar. Please refer to  Enrolment Dates for further details.

Requests for late enrolment will no longer be accepted outside the enrolment period.

Refer to Part 2: RACGP Fellowship Examinations, Section 3 Withdrawing from an examination of the Assessments and Examinations Candidate Handbook.

If you request to withdraw from the AKT or the KFP more than 20 business days before the scheduled exam, you will receive a refund of the enrolment fee, minus a $100 withdrawal fee per exam segment.

If you request to withdraw less than 20 business days before the scheduled exam date, you will not receive a fee refund. For further details, please refer to the Exam results, marking and dates section above.

Check your eligibility criteria on the policy framework.

The RACGP audits all exam enrolments to ensure candidates are eligible to sit the Fellowship examinations and provides enrolment information to all RTOs for the purposes of validating eligibility. If you are found to not meet the eligibility requirements, you will be automatically withdrawn from the exam segment and will be subject to a $100 withdrawal fee per exam segment.

Remember, you must tell us of any restrictions, conditions, suspensions and/or undertakings on your medical registration as soon as possible. This will help us support you appropriately on your journey to Fellowship.

Subject to the limitations of the Fellowship Exams Policy (AGPT, RVTS and FSP candidates) or the Fellowship Exam Attempts Policy (GPE pathway candidates), you can apply for suspension of your candidacy in any semester in which you do not sit an exam.

You cannot sit exams if you have suspended the semester.

Following the exam/s, you will have the opportunity to provide feedback about your experience via an online survey sent to your email. The evaluation findings are used to inform quality assurance and continuous improvement initiatives (guided by the RACGP Monitoring and Evaluation Framework), thereby ensuring processes for future exams are of the highest quality. All feedback gathered is confidential (see the RACGP Privacy Policy ). We would greatly appreciate you taking the time to complete the survey!

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